1.3.0.0.5.A.1The definition of nighttime is A. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. B. sunset to sunrise. C. the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
1.3.0.2.6.A.1Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have A. passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector. B. received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook. C. an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
1.3.0.3.1.A.1To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same A. category and class, but not type. B. make and model. C. category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
1.3.0.7.5.A.1Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found? A. In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. B. In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks. C. On the Airworthiness Certificate.
1.3.0.9.4.A.1What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? A. The glider pilot should give way to the right. B. The airplane pilot should give way to the left. C. Both pilots should give way to the right.
1.3.1.0.0.A.1When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A. 200 knots. B. 250 knots. C. 180 knots.
1.3.1.1.1.A.1A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot A. should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. B. should return for landing. C. is cleared to land.
1.3.1.5.6.A.1Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175ø? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet. A. 4,500 feet. B. 5,500 feet. C. 5,000 feet.
1.3.1.5.8.A.1Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a A. true course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees. B. magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees. C. magnetic heading of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
1.3.1.6.2.A.1Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? A. Sunset to sunrise. B. End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. C. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
1.3.1.8.6.A.1To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the A. aircraft maintenance records. B. Airworthiness Certificate. C. Registration Certificate.
1.3.2.0.0.A.1The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A. when requested. B. within 10 days. C. within 7 days.
2.3.2.1.3.A.1What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane? A. To control yaw. B. To control roll. C. To control overbanking tendency.
2.3.2.1.7.A.1The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the A. abruptness at which the load is applied. B. speed of the airplane. C. position of the CG.
2.3.2.2.2.A.1If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with A. the mixture set too rich. B. higher-than-normal oil pressure. C. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
2.3.2.2.6.A.1The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to A. decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. B. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density. C. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
2.3.2.4.3.A.1Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will A. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. B. force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine. C. prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
2.3.2.5.3.A.1(Refer to figure 3.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet? A. 1, 2, and 3. B. 1 and 2 only. C. 1 only.
2.3.2.5.8.A.1What is density altitude? A. The altitude read directly from the altimeter. B. The height above the standard datum plane. C. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
2.3.2.5.9.A.1What is pressure altitude? A. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure. B. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error. C. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
2.3.2.8.2.A.1In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if A. a right turn is entered from an east heading. B. a left turn is entered from a west heading. C. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
2.3.2.9.6.A.1(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50 øF on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL? A. 1,300-foot increase. B. 900-foot increase. C. 1,100-foot decrease.
2.3.3.0.1.A.1What force makes an airplane turn? A. The vertical component of lift. B. The horizontal component of lift. C. Centrifugal force.
2.3.3.1.0.A.1During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled? A. Neither wing is stalled. B. Only the left wing is stalled. C. Both wings are stalled.
3.3.3.8.9.A.1Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value? A. At standard temperature. B. When the altimeter has no installation error. C. At sea level, when the temperature is 0 øF.
3.3.4.0.0.A.1What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air? A. Heating and condensation. B. Evaporation and sublimation. C. Supersaturation and evaporation.
3.3.4.2.0.A.1What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence? A. Towering cumulus clouds. B. Cirrus clouds. C. Nimbostratus clouds.
3.3.4.2.7.A.1When may hazardous wind shear be expected? A. When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds. B. Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing. C. In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
3.3.4.3.3.A.1The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and A. unstable, moist air. B. either stable or unstable air. C. unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei.
3.3.4.5.2.A.1Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm? A. Hail. B. Heavy rain. C. Lightning.
3.3.4.6.0.A.1A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is A. an outlook briefing. B. a forecast briefing. C. a prognostic briefing.
3.3.4.7.5.B.1(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is A. moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet. B. moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet. C. light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.
3.3.4.7.8.A.1>From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast? A. Area Forecast. B. Weather Depiction Chart. C. Low-Level Prognostic Chart.
3.3.4.9.4.B.1To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a A. VHF radio receiver tuned to an Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) frequency. B. Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility. C. regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency.
3.3.4.9.8.A.1Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms? A. AIRMET. B. Convective SIGMET. C. SIGMET.
3.3.5.1.4.A.1What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts? A. Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms. B. Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations. C. Types of clouds between reporting stations.
4.3.5.3.4.A.1(Refer to figure 22.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330ø at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out. A. 48 minutes. B. 44 minutes. C. 52 minutes.
4.3.5.5.0.B.1(Refer to figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090ø at 16 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots. A. 208 deg. B. 230 deg. C. 212 deg.
4.3.5.7.1.A.1(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A. 1445Z. B. 1545Z. C. 1345Z.
4.3.5.7.5.A.1(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A. 2030Z. B. 2230Z. C. 2130Z.
4.3.5.7.8.A.1(Refer to figure 29, illustration 3.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station? A. West. B. East. C. Southeast.
4.3.5.9.2.A.1(Refer to figure 31, illustration 4.) On a magnetic heading of 320ø, the magnetic bearing TO the station is A. 005ø. B. 185ø. C. 225ø.
4.3.5.9.4.A.1(Refer to figure 31, illustration 6.) On a magnetic heading of 120ø, the magnetic bearing TO the station is A. 165ø. B. 270ø. C. 045ø.
4.3.5.9.9.A.1(Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is A. at the surface. B. 4,000 feet MSL. C. 3,200 feet MSL.
4.3.6.1.3.A.1When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is A. "MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.'' B. "MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.'' C. "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.''
4.3.6.1.9.A.1(Refer to figure 23, area 2 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood Airport, refer to A. notes on the border of the chart. B. the Airport/Facility Directory. C. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.
4.3.6.2.3.A.1(Refer to figure 27, area 6.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is A. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. B. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL. C. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.
4.3.6.3.8.B.1(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 340ø radial is A. 400 feet AGL. B. 455 feet MSL. C. 432 feet MSL.
5.3.6.5.9.B.1How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day? A. Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command. B. Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer. C. Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
5.3.6.7.0.A.1(Refer to figure 35.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000Empty weight 1,350 51.5Pilot and front passenger 310 ---Rear passengers 96 ---Fuel, 38 gal--- ---Oil, 8 qt----0.2 A. 81.2, normal category. B. 79.2, utility category. C. 80.8, utility category.
5.3.6.9.5.A.1(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.Pressure altitude5,000 ftHeadwind8 ktsTemperature41 øFRunwayHard surface A. 837 feet. B. 956 feet. C. 1,076 feet.
5.3.7.0.9.A.1FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by A. ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office. B. subscribing to the Federal Register. C. distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
5.3.7.6.1.A.1A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a A. pink light signal. B. red light signal. C. green light signal.
5.3.7.7.8.A.1The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately A. 009ø and 027ø true. B. 090ø and 270ø true. C. 090ø and 270ø magnetic.
5.3.8.0.0.A.1When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes? A. 0700, 1700, 7000. B. 1200, 1500, 7000. C. 7500, 7600, 7700.
5.3.8.0.6.A.1(Refer to figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on A. Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right. B. Runway 22 directly into the wind. C. Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
5.3.8.2.0.A.1When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)? A. After one-half the battery's useful life. B. During each annual and 100-hour inspection. C. Every 24 calendar months.
5.3.8.3.3.A.1What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight? A. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity. B. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily. C. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
5.3.8.4.2.A.1(Refer to figure 53.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are A. to the right on Runways 14 - 32. B. to the right on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the left on Runway 17R and Runway 35R. C. to the left on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the right on Runway 17R and Runway 35R.
5.3.8.5.5.A.1FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number? A. 60. B. 70. C. 90.
