2.6.1.6.8.A.1An altimeter indicates 1,850 feet MSL when set to 30.18. What is the approximate pressure altitude? A. 2,110 feet. B. 1,590 feet. C. 1,824 feet.
2.6.1.7.0.A.1An aircraft is flying at a constant power setting and constant indicated altitude. If the outside air temperature (OAT) decreases, true airspeed will A. decrease, and true altitude will decrease. B. increase, and true altitude will increase. C. increase, and true altitude will decrease.
2.6.1.7.5.A.1The windflow around a low pressure is A. anticyclonic. B. adiabatic. C. cyclonic.
2.6.1.8.1.A.1Which is an operational consideration regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread? A. The temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity decreases. B. The temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity increases. C. The temperature spread increases as the relative humidity increases.
2.6.1.9.8.A.1A moist, cold air mass that is being warmed from below is characterized, in part, by A. showers and thunderstorms. B. continuous heavy precipitation. C. fog and drizzle.
2.6.2.0.4.A.1Cool air moving over a warm surface is generally characterized by A. stability, fog, and drizzle. B. instability and showers. C. instability and continuous precipitation.
2.6.2.0.6.A.1Which statement is true regarding a cold front occlusion? A. The air ahead of the warm front has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front. B. The air ahead of the warm front is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front. C. The air between the warm front and cold front is colder than either the air ahead of the warm front or the air behind the overtaking cold front.
2.6.2.1.3.A.1Which is an operational consideration regarding aircraft structural icing? A. Clear ice is most likely to form on an airplane when flying through stratified clouds or light drizzle. B. It is unnecessary for an aircraft to fly through rain or cloud droplets for structural ice to form. C. In order for structural ice to form, the temperature at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0 °C (32 °F) or colder.
2.6.2.1.7.A.1What feature is associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. Frequent lightning. B. Beginning of rain at the surface. C. Continuous updrafts.
2.6.2.2.2.A.1Hail, an in-flight hazard, is most likely to be associated with A. stratocumulus clouds. B. cumulonimbus clouds. C. cumulus clouds.
2.6.2.3.0.A.1In reference to clear air turbulence (CAT), areas to be avoided are those where horizontal wind shear exceeds A. 40 knots per 150 miles. B. 10 knots per 50 miles. C. 6 knots per 1,000 feet.
2.6.2.5.1.B.1(Refer to figure 3.) The temperature/dew point spread at KAUS is A. 4 ºC. B. 7 ºC. C. 4 ºF.
2.6.2.6.1.B.1(Refer to figure 4.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is A. moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet. B. moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet. C. light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.
2.6.2.6.8.B.1For a brief summary of the location and movement of fronts, pressure systems, and circulation patterns, the pilot should refer to A. a Radar Summary Chart. B. an Aviation Area Forecast. C. a Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.
2.6.2.7.1.B.1(Refer to figure 6.) What is the outlook for the southern half of Indiana after 0700Z? A. Scattered clouds at 3,000 feet AGL. B. Scattered clouds at 10,000 feet. C. VFR.
2.6.2.8.6.B.1On a Weather Depiction Chart, what weather conditions would be contained in an unshaded area that is outlined by a smooth line? A. Ceiling between 1,000 and 3,000 feet and/or visibility between 3 and 5 miles. B. Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles. C. Ceiling between 5,000 and 7,000 feet and/or visibility greater than 5 miles.
2.6.2.8.9.B.1(Refer to figure 12.) what is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan? A. Stationary. B. Warm. C. Cold.
2.6.2.9.5.B.1(Refer to figure 13, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is A. 16,000 feet AGL. B. 16,000 feet MSL. C. 25,000 feet MSL.
2.6.2.9.9.B.1(Refer to figure 14.) Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12 hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart. A. Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet. B. Thunderstorm tops at 18,000 feet. C. Base of clear air turbulence, 18,000 feet.
2.6.3.0.3.A.1Which weather chart depicts the conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future? A. Surface Analysis. B. Prognostic. C. Weather Depiction.
3.6.3.1.6.A.2Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A. Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
3.6.3.2.2.A.1What is the duration of a Flight Instructor Certificate? A. Indefinite, as long as the holder has a current pilot and medical certificate appropriate to the pilot privileges being exercised. B. Indefinite, unless suspended or revoked. C. 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued or renewed.
3.6.3.2.8.A.1No person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized airplane with a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet unless that person has A. completed a pilot proficiency check for a pilot or instructor pilot certificate or rating conducted by the FAA after April 15, 1991. B. completed a physiological training program conducted by the FAA or a military service. C. received ground and flight training in high altitude operations and a logbook endorsement certifying this training.
3.6.3.3.2.B.1What action may be taken against a person whom the Administrator finds has cheated on a knowledge test? A. Any certificate or rating held by the person may be suspended or revoked. B. That person may be required to wait a maximum of 6 months before applying for any other certificate or rating. C. That person will be required to wait 24 months before taking another knowledge test.
3.6.3.4.6.A.2What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A. One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. B. One-half the time the aircraft is in actual instrument conditions. C. All of the time the second in command is controlling the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
3.6.3.5.1.A.1What recent flight experience must be met before a commercial airplane pilot may fly solo in an airplane? A. Three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an airplane. B. Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review in any aircraft for which rated within the preceding 24 calendar months. C. Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months, but this review must be in an airplane.
3.6.3.6.4.A.1Prior to a first solo flight, the flight instructor is required to endorse the student's A. logbook. B. pilot certificate. C. logbook and pilot certificate.
3.6.3.8.2.B.1Your student has received 3.0 hours of night flight training including five takeoffs and landings. Is your student eligible to take the Private Pilot practical test? A. Yes, but the pilot certificate would bear the limitation, 'Night Flying Prohibited.' B. No. C. Yes, but the pilot certificate would bear the restriction, 'Holder does not meet ICAO requirements.'
3.6.4.0.2.A.1Certain flight training is required for the issuance of a certificate. If that training is in a helicopter or multiengine airplane, the instructor is required, in part, to have A. given at least 25 hours of flight training in the particular make and model aircraft. B. at least 5 hours of experience as pilot in command in the make and model of aircraft involved. C. given at least 200 hours of flight training.
3.6.4.0.3.A.1The minimum pilot-in-command time requirement for a flight instructor with multiengine privileges to give flight training to a student for a multiengine rating is A. 10 hours in the make of aircraft in which the training is to be given. B. 5 hours in the make and model of aircraft in which the training is to be given. C. 15 hours in the make and model of aircraft in which training is to be given.
3.6.4.0.7.A.1Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? A. Under no condition. B. Only if the person is a medical patient under proper care or in an emergency. C. Only if a second pilot is aboard.
3.6.4.1.7.A.1If on a night flight, the pilot of aircraft A observes only the green wingtip light of aircraft B, and the airplanes are converging, which aircraft has the right-of-way? A. Aircraft B; it is to the right of aircraft A. B. Aircraft A; it is to the right of aircraft B. C. Aircraft A; it is to the left of aircraft B.
3.6.4.3.7.A.1What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace? A. Private Pilot Certificate. B. Commercial Pilot Certificate. C. Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate endorsement.
3.6.4.3.8.A.1Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace? A. Solo student pilots are authorized to fly in Class B airspace if they meet certain requirements. B. An operating VOR is required. C. A Private Pilot Certificate is required for all flight within this airspace.
3.6.4.3.9.A.1Which equipment is required when operating an aircraft within Class B airspace? A. A VOR or TACAN receiver. B. Two-way radio communications and transponder with encoding altimeter. C. Two-way radio communications.
3.6.4.6.1.A.1Which courses and altitudes are appropriate for VFR aircraft operating more than 3,000 feet AGL, but below 18,000 feet MSL? A. True course 0° to 179° inclusive, odd thousands plus 500 feet. B. Magnetic course 180° to 359° inclusive, even thousands plus 500 feet. C. Magnetic course 0° to 179° inclusive, even thousands plus 500 feet.
3.6.4.6.6.A.1How long may an aircraft be operated after the emergency locator transmitter has been initially removed for maintenance? A. 90 days. B. 7 days. C. 30 days.
3.6.4.7.5.A.1Authority for approval of a minimum equipment list (MEL) must be obtained from the A. FAA district office. B. Administrator. C. aircraft manufacturer.
3.6.4.9.0.A.1An aircraft operated for hire with passengers aboard has a 100-hour inspection performed after 90 hours in service. The next 100-hour inspection would be due after A. 110 hours' time in service. B. 90 hours' time in service. C. 100 hours' time in service.
3.6.5.0.0.A.1The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A. only if requested to do so. B. within 10 days. C. within 7 days.
4.6.5.0.6.A.1An airplane would have a tendency to nose up and have an inherent tendency to enter a stalled condition when the center of pressure is A. below the center of gravity. B. forward of the center of gravity. C. aft of the center of gravity.
4.6.5.3.9.A.1An airplane leaving ground effect will A. experience a decrease in stability and a noseup change in moments. B. require a lower angle of attack to attain the same lift coefficient. C. experience a decrease in thrust required.
4.6.5.4.7.A.1(Refer to figure 17.) The airspeed indicated by point B is A. maximum structural cruising speed. B. never-exceed speed. C. maneuvering speed.
4.6.5.4.8.A.1(Refer to figure 17.) The airspeed indicated by point D is A. maximum structural cruising speed. B. maneuvering speed. C. never-exceed speed.
4.6.5.4.9.A.1(Refer to figure 17.) The airspeed indicated by point C is A. never-exceed speed. B. maneuvering speed. C. maximum structural cruising speed.
4.6.5.6.9.A.1If the airspeed increases and decreases during longitudinal phugoid oscillations, the aircraft A. is constantly changing angle of attack making it difficult for the pilot to reduce the magnitude of the oscillations. B. will display poor trimming qualities. C. is maintaining a nearly constant angle of attack.
4.6.5.7.4.A.1A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the A. wing root providing adequate stall warning. B. wingtip providing inadequate stall warning. C. wingtip providing adequate stall warning.
4.6.5.7.9.A.1At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing) A. decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack. B. increased drag, especially at a high angle of attack. C. increased drag, especially at a low angle of attack.
4.6.5.8.6.A.1(Refer to figure 22.) While rolling out of a left turn, if the inclinometer appears as illustrated in A, the HCL and CF vectors would be acting on the aircraft as illustrated in A. 2, and more right pedal pressure is needed to center the ball. B. 4, and more left pedal pressure is needed to center the ball. C. 4, and more right pedal pressure is needed to center the ball.
4.6.5.9.4.A.1The critical engine on most light multiengine airplanes with clockwise rotating propellers is the A. left engine, because of the P-factor of the left propeller. B. left engine, because of the P-factor of the right propeller. C. right engine, because of the P-factor of the left propeller.
5.6.6.4.6.A.1Which statement is true regarding fouling of the spark plugs of an aircraft engine? A. Spark plug fouling results from operating with an excessively rich mixture. B. Carbon fouling of the spark plugs is caused primarily by operating an engine at excessively high cylinder head temperatures. C. Excessive heat in the combustion chamber of a cylinder causes oil to form on the center electrode of a spark plug and this fouls the plug.
5.6.6.6.2.B.1Concerning carburetor icing, which statement is true? A. Carburetor icing will form in a carburetor whenever the ambient temperature is below freezing with a reduced or closed throttle setting. B. Carburetor icing would most likely form when the air temperature is between -7 °C and 21 °C and visible moisture or high humidity is present. C. The first indication of carburetor icing, in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller, is a decrease in manifold pressure.
5.6.6.8.2.A.1A possible result of using the emergency alternate source of static pressure inside the cabin of an unpressurized airplane is the A. altimeter may indicate an altitude lower than the actual altitude being flown. B. altimeter may indicate an altitude higher than the actual altitude being flown. C. airspeed indicator may indicate less than normal.
5.6.6.8.9.A.1(Refer to figure 23.) Which is a slotted flap? A. 4. B. 1. C. 3.
5.6.7.1.0.A.1Which statement is true regarding preheating of an aircraft during cold-weather operations? A. The cockpit, as well as the engine, should be preheated. B. The cockpit area should not be preheated with portable heaters. C. Hot air should be blown directly at the engine through the air intakes.
6.6.7.4.4.A.1Density altitude increases with A. increases in temperature and moisture content of the air, and a decrease in pressure. B. an increase in temperature only. C. increases in pressure, temperature, and moisture content of the air.
6.6.7.6.6.A.1(Refer to figure 29.) What is the approximate glide distance?Height above terrain7,500 ftHeadwind30 kts A. 21.5 miles. B. 11.5 miles. C. 16.5 miles.
6.6.7.9.1.A.1How much weight could be added at Station 120 without exceeding the aft CG limit?Aircraft weight9,500 lbCG locationStation 90.0Aft CG limitStation 90.5 A. 61.0 pounds. B. 110.5 pounds. C. 161.0 pounds.
6.6.8.1.3.A.1Which condition causes V[subscript]MC to be the highest? A. CG is at the most forward allowable position. B. CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C. Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.
6.6.8.2.4.A.1Under which condition is a forward CG most critical? A. On landing. B. When in an unusual attitude. C. On takeoff.
7.6.8.5.7.A.1GIVEN:Departure pathstraight outTakeoff time 1435ZWinds during climb175° at 25 ktsTrue course during climb155°Airport elevation2,000 ftTrue airspeed130 ktsRate of climb500 ft/minWhat would be the distance and time upon reaching 8,000 feet MSL? A. 27 NM and 1455Z. B. 21 NM and 1447Z. C. 24 NM and 1452Z.
7.6.8.6.2.A.1GIVEN:Usable fuel at takeoff40 galFuel consumption rate12.2 gal/hrConstant groundspeed120 ktsFlight time since takeoff1 hr 30 minAccording to FAR Part 91, how much farther can an airplane be flown under night VFR? A. 216 NM. B. 121 NM. C. 156 NM.
7.6.8.6.4.A.1If fuel consumption is 15.3 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 167 knots, how much fuel is required for an aircraft to travel 620 NM? A. 60 gallons. B. 63 gallons. C. 57 gallons.
7.6.8.6.6.A.1On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.Distance between A and B70 NMForecast wind310° at 15 ktsPressure altitude8,000 ftAmbient temperature-10 °CTrue course270°The required indicated airspeed would be approximately A. 126 knots. B. 137 knots. C. 152 knots.
7.6.8.6.7.A.1On a cross-country flight, point X is crossed at 1015 and arrival at point Y is expected at 1025. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point Y on schedule.Distance between X and Y27 NMForecast wind240° at 30 ktsPressure altitude5,500 ftAmbient temperature+05 °CTrue course100°The required indicated airspeed would be approximately A. 128 knots. B. 162 knots. C. 140 knots.
7.6.8.8.8.A.1GIVEN:True course238°Variation3° WIndicated airspeed160 ktsAmbient temperature-15 °CPressure altitude8,500 ftForecast wind160° at 25 ktsUnder these conditions, the magnetic heading and groundspeed would be approximately A. 233° and 171 knots. B. 241° and 178 knots. C. 224° and 171 knots.
7.6.8.9.1.A.1(Refer to figure 41.) If on a magnetic heading of 030° and receiving ADF indication 5, to what heading should the aircraft be turned to intercept the 150° bearing from the station at a 30° angle? A. 120°. B. 180°. C. 210°.
7.6.8.9.2.A.1(Refer to figure 41.) If on a magnetic heading of 270° and receiving ADF indication 2, to what heading should the aircraft be turned to intercept the 350° bearing from the station at a 20° angle? A. 190°. B. 290°. C. 330°.
7.6.9.0.6.A.1(Refer to figure 43.) Which RMI indicator shows your position to be northwest of the station? A. 3. B. 2. C. 6.
7.6.9.0.8.A.1(Refer to figure 43.) RMI indicator 2 shows the magnetic bearing to the station to be A. 125°. B. 295°. C. 115°.
7.6.9.1.5.A.1If you are 30 miles from the NDB transmitter and the ADF indicates 3° off course, how many miles off course are you? A. 3. B. 6. C. 1.5.
7.6.9.2.5.A.1The three individual navigation services provided by a VORTAC facility are A. UHF VOR azimuth, VHF TACAN azimuth, and VHF TACAN distance information. B. VHF VOR azimuth, VHF TACAN azimuth, and UHF TACAN distance information. C. VHF VOR azimuth, UHF TACAN azimuth, and UHF TACAN distance information.
7.6.9.3.5.A.1(Refer to figure 44.) What altitude should be selected to avoid operating in Class B airspace on a flight from Northwest Airport (area 2) to McKinney Airport (area 5)? A. 2,500 feet MSL. B. 3,000 feet MSL. C. 3,500 feet MSL.
7.6.9.3.6.A.1(Refer to figure 44.) What minimum avionics equipment is necessary to operate in the airspace up to 3,000 feet MSL over Northwest Airport (area 2)? A. Two-way radio communications equipment, transponder, and encoding altimeter. B. Transponder and encoding altimeter. C. None required.
7.6.9.3.9.B.1(Refer to figure 44.) Select the correct statement concerning the Maverick VOR (area 6). A. Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is not available over the VOR. B. The VOR has Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) capability. C. A pilot may receive transmissions from Fort Worth Flight Service Station over the VOR frequency.
7.6.9.5.4.B.1(Refer to figure 46.) At what altitude does the Class B airspace begin over Hayward Airport (area 3)? A. 1,500 feet MSL. B. 3,000 feet MSL. C. Surface.
7.6.9.5.5.B.1(Refer to figure 46.) What is the ceiling of the Class C airspace surrounding San Jose International Airport (area 2)? A. 4,000 feet MSL. B. 6,000 feet MSL. C. 2,500 feet AGL.
7.6.9.5.7.A.1(Refer to figure 46.) What does the figure 24 (area 6) indicate? A. Height above ground of the tallest obstruction for that quadrangle. B. Maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle. C. Minimum safe altitude when approaching San Francisco.
7.6.9.6.3.A.1(Refer to figure 47.) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas? A. 3,000 feet above airport. B. 4,000 feet above airport. C. 3,000 feet AGL.
7.6.9.7.3.A.1Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is A. never permitted. B. permitted at certain times, but only with prior permission from the appropriate authority. C. permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity.
8.6.9.7.7.A.1Which aileron position should you generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds? A. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. B. Neutral. C. Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
8.6.9.7.9.A.1Why should an airplane be headed into the wind for the pretakeoff check? A. To obtain more accurate operating indications and to minimize engine overheating during run-up. B. To prevent excessive load factors which could occur during run-up if a crosswind condition exists. C. To prevent the need for more brake pressure to keep the airplane from moving forward.
8.6.9.8.9.A.1When explaining the techniques used for making short- and soft-field takeoffs, it would be correct to state that A. during short-field takeoffs, lift-off should be attempted only after best rate-of-climb speed is attained. B. during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made only when best angle-of-climb speed is attained. C. during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made as soon as possible.
8.6.9.9.1.A.1To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the A. longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion. B. downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift. C. direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
8.7.0.1.3.A.1(Refer to figure 48.) In flying the rectangular course, which would describe the proper angle of bank? A. Corner 1 shallow to medium, corner 2 medium to steep, corner 3 steep to medium, and corner 4 medium to shallow. B. Corner 1 shallow, corner 2 medium, corner 3 steep, and corner 4 shallow. C. Corner 1 shallow, corner 2 medium to steep, corner 3 steep, and corner 4 medium to shallow.
8.7.0.1.4.A.1(See figure 49.) At which points will the wing (lateral axis) be in alignment with the pylon during turns around a point? A. 1 and 5. B. 1, 3, 5, and 7. C. 3 and 7.
8.7.0.2.0.A.1(Refer to figure 50.) In which positions will the groundspeeds be equal? A. 1 and 6, 2 and 5, 3 and 4. B. 2 and 5. C. 1 and 6, 2 and 5.
8.7.0.2.5.A.1The pivotal altitude for eights-on-pylons is dependent primarily upon the A. groundspeed. B. distance from the pylon. C. true airspeed.
8.7.0.4.2.A.1When performing a lazy eight, where should the maximum pitchup attitude occur? A. 45° point. B. 90° point. C. 180° point.
8.7.0.4.3.A.1When performing a lazy eight, when should the aircraft be at minimum airspeed? A. 45° point. B. 180° point. C. 90° point.
8.7.0.4.5.A.1When performing a lazy eight, when should the maximum altitude occur? A. 180° point. B. 45° point. C. 90° point.
8.7.0.4.8.A.1Which is the most probable result if a pilot initiates the climbing turn portions of the lazy eight with banks that are too steep? A. Completing each 180° change of direction with a net gain of altitude. B. Turning at a rate too fast for the rate of climb and therefore, completing each 180° change of direction with excessive airspeed. C. Attaining a pitch attitude that is too steep and stalling at the top of the climbing turn.
8.7.0.5.0.A.1(Refer to figure 52.) During practice of lazy eights, the most probable cause of the uncoordinated situation at the completion of 90° of turn (indicated by the turn-and-slip indicator shown in "1") is the A. use of too little right rudder pressure. B. use of too much left rudder control pressure. C. use of too much right rudder pressure.
8.7.0.9.8.A.1Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-level flight? A. Airspeed indicator. B. Altimeter. C. Attitude indicator.
8.7.1.2.7.A.1(Refer to figure 54.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle? A. Left-hand traffic on Rwy 27 or Rwy 35. B. Right-hand traffic on Rwy 17. C. Left-hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right-hand traffic on Rwy 27.
8.7.1.3.0.A.1When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in A. FDC NOTAM's. B. NOTAM (D) distribution. C. NOTAM (L) distribution.
8.7.1.3.7.A.1During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by A. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. B. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point. C. remaining below the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
8.7.1.5.3.A.1(Refer to figure 55.) On what frequency can a pilot activate the approach lights at Redbird Field when the control tower is not in operation? A. 120.15. B. 122.95. C. 120.3.
8.7.1.5.7.B.1Which statement concerning hypoxia is true? A. Forcing oneself to concentrate on the flight instruments will help to overcome the effects of hypoxia. B. Belligerence or a false sense of security may be symptoms of hypoxia. C. Hypoxia is caused by nitrogen bubbles in the joints and bloodstream.
8.7.2.2.8.A.4In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? A. Recognizing hazardous thoughts. B. Making a rational judgement. C. Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.
