1.4.0.2.3.B.1What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in comand of an airplane under IFR? A. A minimum of six instrument approaches in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the preceding 6 calendar months. B. A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months. C. A minimum of six instrument approaches, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months.
1.4.0.2.8.A.1A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire in an airplane at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least A. a First-Class Medical Certificate. B. an associated type rating if the airplane is of the multiengine class. C. an airplane instrument pilot rating.
1.4.0.5.2.A.1What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen? A. 14,000 feet. B. 12,500 feet. C. 15,000 feet.
1.4.0.6.6.A.1When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions? A. When operating in the Class E airspace. B. When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet. C. When operating in a Class A airspace.
1.4.0.7.5.A.1(Refer to figure 1.) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form? A. DME, transponder, and ADF. B. DME, ADF, and airborne radar. C. DME, transponder, and RNAV.
1.4.0.8.5.A.1What standard minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only? A. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively. B. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. C. Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
2.4.0.9.9.A.1The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that A. there are thunderstorms in the area. B. a cold front has passed. C. there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.
2.4.1.1.6.A.1The general characteristics of unstable air are A. good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiform type clouds. B. good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds. C. poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.
2.4.1.4.2.A.1If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate? A. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute. B. Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer. C. Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.
2.4.1.5.5.A.1A jetstream is defined as wind of A. 50 knots or greater. B. 40 knots or greater. C. 30 knots or greater.
2.4.1.7.0.B.1The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a A. 5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex. B. 5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport. C. 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
2.4.2.0.6.B.1(Refer to figure 4.) What is the meaning of a bracket (]) plotted to the right of the station circle on a weather depiction chart? A. The station is an automated observation location. B. The station gives local overview of flying conditions for a six hour period. C. The station represents the en route conditions within a 50 mile radius.
2.4.2.2.0.A.1Interpret this PIREP.MRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT. A. At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain. B. Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward. C. FL 60,000, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind.
2.4.2.4.4.B.1(Refer to figure 20.) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky? A. FL390. B. FL300 sloping to FL 400 feet MSL. C. FL340.
2.4.2.5.2.A.1Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as A. 8,000 feet per minute. B. 7,000 feet per minute. C. 6,000 feet per minute.
3.4.2.6.0.A.1(Refer to FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight from GJT to DRO.Route of flightFigure 21Flight log & MAG VARFigure 22En route chartFigure 24FT12,00018,000FNM2408-052208-21 A. 1 hour 03 minutes. B. 58 minutes. C. 1 hour 08 minutes.
3.4.2.6.5.A.1(Refer to figures 21, 22, and 24.) What fuel would be consumed on the flight between Grand Junction Co. and Durango, Co. if the average fuel consumption is 15 GPH. A. 20 gallons. B. 17 gallons. C. 25 gallons.
3.4.2.6.7.A.1(Refer to figures 27 and 28.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is -5 °C? A. 139 KCAS. B. 134 KCAS. C. 142 KCAS.
3.4.2.7.4.A.1(Refer to figures 29.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field? A. 363 feet MSL. B. 365 feet MSL. C. 396 feet MSL.
3.4.2.9.2.A.1(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) At which point does the AQN.AQN2 arrival begin? A. ACTON VORTAC. B. ABI VORTAC. C. CREEK intersection.
3.4.2.9.6.A.1(Refer to figures 42A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency? A. Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available. B. Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability. C. Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.
3.4.3.1.8.B.1(Refer to figure 53.) What service is indicated by the inverse "H" symbol in the radio aids to navigation box for PRB VORTAC? A. VOR with TACAN compatible DME. B. En Route Flight Advisory Service available. C. Availability of HIWAS.
3.4.3.3.9.A.1(Refer to figures 65 and 67.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection? A. It signifies a localizer only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial. B. The localizer has an additional navigation function. C. GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF for the ILS approach procedure to Harry P. Williams Memorial.
3.4.3.4.5.A.1(Refer to figure 69.) What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS if the outside air temperature is +05 °C? A. 126 KCAS. B. 119 KCAS. C. 124 KCAS.
3.4.3.4.8.B.1(Refer to figures 70 and 71.) Which VORTAC along the proposed route of flight could provide HIWAS information? A. KINGSTON VORTAC. B. HUGUENOT VORTAC. C. SPARTA VORTAC.
3.4.3.5.0.A.1(Refer to figure 72.) How many precision approach procedures are published for Bradley International Airport? A. One. B. Three. C. Four.
3.4.3.5.2.A.1(Refer to figure 73.) At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight? A. When reaching 374 feet MSL indicated altitude. B. Upon reaching 374 feet AGL. C. When 3 minutes (at 90 knots groundspeed) have expired or reaching 374 feet MSL, whichever occurs first.
4.4.3.7.8.A.1When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the OBS indicator should read A. within 6° of the selected radial. B. 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR. C. within 4° of the selected radial.
4.4.3.7.9.A.1What does declaring "minimum fuel'' to ATC imply? A. Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport. C. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
4.4.4.0.7.A.1When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? A. When priority has been given. B. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace. C. Any time an emergency occurs.
4.4.4.3.9.A.1Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to the A. FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the proposed operation. B. nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24 hours before the proposed operation. C. controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.
4.4.4.4.0.A.1Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace? A. A 4096 code transponder. B. A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment. C. A VOR receiver with DME.
4.4.4.4.3.A.1What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''? A. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. B. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. C. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
4.4.4.8.7.A.1As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate? A. Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility. B. No specific distance is specified since the reception is line of sight. C. One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
4.4.4.9.1.A.1(Refer to figure 85.) What is the minimum rate climb per NM to 9,000 feet required for the WASH2 WAGGE Departure? A. 875 feet. B. 400 feet. C. 750 feet.
4.4.4.9.4.A.1(Refer to figure 87.) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended? A. Teardrop. B. Parallel. C. Direct.
4.4.5.3.1.B.1(Refer to figure 93.) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace? A. 10,000 feet MSL. B. 14,500 feet MSL. C. 4,000 feet MSL.
4.4.5.4.0.A.1What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts? A. 500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility. B. 1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility. C. 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
4.4.5.4.1.A.1In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of A. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle. B. 500 feet above the highest obstacle. C. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
5.4.5.5.3.A.1An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline? A. 3 1/2 miles. B. 2 1/2 miles. C. 1 1/2 miles.
5.4.5.6.1.A.1(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI? A. 166°. B. 174°. C. 335°.
5.4.5.6.4.A.1(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B'' correspond? A. 11. B. 5 and 13. C. 7 and 11.
5.4.6.1.5.A.1(Refer to figure 114.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:''...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...''What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. Direct only. B. Parallel only. C. Teardrop only.
5.4.6.3.6.A.1What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the planview on an approach chart indicate? A. A procedure turn is not authorized. B. Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized. C. Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
5.4.6.5.4.B.1(Refer to figure 123.) The symbol on the planview of the VOR/DME-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of A. DEANI intersection. B. Baldwin Municipal Airport. C. White Cloud VORTAC.
5.4.6.5.9.A.1(Refer to figure 126.) What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR part 91 operator at Dothan, AL, using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 31 approach at 120 knots? (DME available). A. MDA 720 feet MSL and visibility 3/4 SM. B. MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 2 SM. C. MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM.
5.4.6.9.5.A.1(Refer to figure 131.) Other than VOR/DME RNAV, what additional navigation equipment is required to conduct theVOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS? A. None. B. VNAV. C. Transponder with altitude encoding and Marker Beacon.
5.4.7.3.8.A.1Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur? A. During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires. B. During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture. C. When rudder is used for directional control instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.
5.4.7.5.3.A.1Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS? A. 200 feet. B. 300 feet. C. 100 feet.
5.4.7.6.3.A.1If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is A. permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway. B. required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure. C. permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
5.4.7.7.5.A.1Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2 bar VASI? A. If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white. B. If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white. C. If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.
6.4.8.1.0.A.1The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions A. occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight. B. are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience. C. must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
6.4.8.1.1.A.1How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation? A. Rely on kinesthetic sense. B. Use a very rapid cross check. C. Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
6.4.8.1.7.B.1Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight? A. The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation. B. Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level. C. Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.
7.4.8.2.5.A.1(Refer to figures 140, 141, and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course? A. Figure 140 B. Figure 141 C. Figure 142
7.4.8.6.3.A.1As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively? A. Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. B. Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. C. Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
7.4.8.9.3.A.1What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere? A. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. B. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. C. The compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
7.4.9.0.1.A.1If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual reference, the attitude indicator A. may show a slight climb and turn. B. should immediately show straight-and-level flight. C. will show a slight skid and climb to the right.
7.4.9.0.8.A.1If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect? A. The altimeter to read lower than normal. B. The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent. C. The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.
7.4.9.2.9.A.1While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the A. airspeed indication reaches 160 knots. B. attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb. C. attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160 knot climb.
