2.6.1.6.2.A.1Which is the primary driving force of weather on the Earth? A. Coriolis. B. Rotation of the Earth. C. The Sun.
2.6.1.7.4.A.1What causes wind? A. Pressure differences. B. The rotation of the Earth. C. Coriolis force.
2.6.1.7.5.A.1The windflow around a low pressure is A. anticyclonic. B. adiabatic. C. cyclonic.
2.6.1.9.7.A.1What type weather is associated with an advancing warm front that has moist, unstable air? A. Cumuliform clouds, turbulent air, showery-type precipitation. B. Stratiform clouds, lightning, steady precipitation. C. Cumuliform clouds, smooth air, steady precipitation.
2.6.2.0.1.A.1What is a typical characteristic of a stable air mass? A. Showery precipitation. B. Cumuliform clouds. C. Continuous precipitation.
2.6.2.0.4.A.1Cool air moving over a warm surface is generally characterized by A. stability, fog, and drizzle. B. instability and showers. C. instability and continuous precipitation.
2.6.2.1.5.A.1Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm. A. The initial stage of a thunderstorm is always indicated by the development of a nimbus cloud. B. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm. C. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm.
2.6.2.1.9.A.1A squall line is usually associated with a A. fast-moving cold front. B. fast-moving warm front. C. stationary front.
2.6.2.2.4.A.1One condition necessary for the formation of fog is A. calm air. B. high relative humidity. C. visible moisture.
2.6.2.6.9.B.1What is the meaning of MVFR, as used in the categorical outlook portion of an Aviation Area Forecast? A. A ceiling of 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility of 3 to 5 miles. B. A ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 1 mile. C. A ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles.
2.6.2.7.4.B.1Refer to figure 6.) What sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z? A. Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist. B. Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 nautical miles in mist. C. Ceiling becoming 100 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
2.6.2.7.5.A.1What information would be covered in an AIRMET? A. Hail of 3/4 inch or greater diameter. B. Extensive mountain obscurement. C. Severe turbulence.
2.6.2.8.4.A.1(Refer to figure 9.) Which symbol used on a Surface Analysis Weather Chart represents a dissipating warm front? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3.
2.6.3.0.0.B.1(Refer to figure 14.) What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours? A. Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation. B. Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with intermittent precipitation. C. Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles with continuous precipitation.
2.6.3.0.3.A.1Which weather chart depicts the conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future? A. Surface Analysis. B. Prognostic. C. Weather Depiction.
2.6.3.0.6.B.1(Refer to figure 15.) The right panel on this Severe Weather Outlook Chart indicates A. general thunderstorm activity. B. forecast severe thunderstorm areas. C. tornado watch areas.
3.6.3.3.1.A.1A person who the Administrator finds has cheated or committed any unauthorized act while taking a knowledge test may not take another knowledge test within A. 1 year. B. 90 days. C. 2 years.
3.6.3.3.3.A.1What class medical certificate, if any, is required for a person adding a rating to a pilot certificate? A. Third-Class. B. Second-Class. C. None.
3.6.3.4.4.A.1Which training time must be certified by the instructor from whom it was received? A. Flight training. B. All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training. C. Flight training and training in a flight training device.
3.6.3.5.4.A.1If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is A. 1829. B. 1929. C. 1859.
3.6.3.6.0.A.1To be eligible for a Student Pilot Certificate limited to airplanes, an applicant is required to be at least how old? A. 14 years. B. 17 years. C. 16 years.
3.6.4.0.2.A.1Certain flight training is required for the issuance of a certificate. If that training is in a helicopter or multiengine airplane, the instructor is required, in part, to have A. given at least 25 hours of flight training in the particular make and model aircraft. B. at least 5 hours of experience as pilot in command in the make and model of aircraft involved. C. given at least 200 hours of flight training.
3.6.4.0.5.A.2The holder of a Ground Instructor Certificate with a basic rating is authorized to provide ground training required for A. any flight review or instrument proficiency check. B. all aeronautical knowledge areas for a recreational or private pilot certificate. C. a flight instructor refresher course.
3.6.4.0.6.A.1If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, a pilot in command may A. not deviate from FAR's unless permission is obtained from air traffic control. B. deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours. C. deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency.
3.6.4.2.2.A.1When flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is A. 250 knots. B. 156 knots. C. 200 knots.
3.6.4.3.2.A.1While in flight, an alternating red and green light directed at you from the control tower means A. return for landing; expect steady green light at proper time. B. exercise extreme caution. C. give way to other aircraft; continue circling.
3.6.4.3.6.A.1An airport without a control tower lies within the controlled airspace of an airport with an operating tower. According to regulations, two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landing clearance at A. the tower-controlled airport only, as well as to fly through the area. B. the tower-controlled airport only, but not required to fly through the area. C. both airports, as well as to fly through the area.
3.6.4.5.1.A.1While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL? A. 5 SM. B. 1 SM. C. 3 SM.
3.6.4.6.2.A.1Regarding certificates and documents, no person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it an A. Airworthiness Certificate and minimum equipment list (MEL). B. Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, and approved flight manual. C. Airworthiness Certificate, aircraft and engine logbooks, and owner's handbook.
3.6.4.6.7.A.2How often are emergency locator transmitters required to be inspected? A. Every 12 months. B. After every 100 hours of flight time. C. Every 24 months.
3.6.4.9.1.A.1If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use? A. It may be used anywhere except in Class A and B airspace. B. Its use is not permitted. C. It may be used for VFR flight but not for IFR flight.
3.6.4.9.5.A.1The NTSB defines a serious injury as any injury which A. causes severe tendon damage. B. involves first degree burns over 5 percent of the body. C. results in a simple fracture of the nose.
4.6.5.0.6.A.1An airplane would have a tendency to nose up and have an inherent tendency to enter a stalled condition when the center of pressure is A. below the center of gravity. B. forward of the center of gravity. C. aft of the center of gravity.
4.6.5.1.5.A.1The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of A. incidence. B. lift. C. attack.
4.6.5.2.0.A.1Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle? A. Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface. B. An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward. C. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
4.6.5.3.9.A.1An airplane leaving ground effect will A. experience a decrease in stability and a noseup change in moments. B. require a lower angle of attack to attain the same lift coefficient. C. experience a decrease in thrust required.
4.6.5.6.7.A.1The capability of an aircraft to respond to a pilot's inputs, especially with regard to flightpath and attitude, is A. response. B. maneuverability. C. controllability.
4.6.5.7.9.A.1At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing) A. decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack. B. increased drag, especially at a high angle of attack. C. increased drag, especially at a low angle of attack.
4.6.5.9.4.A.1The critical engine on most light multiengine airplanes with clockwise rotating propellers is the A. left engine, because of the P-factor of the left propeller. B. left engine, because of the P-factor of the right propeller. C. right engine, because of the P-factor of the left propeller.
4.6.5.9.5.A.1On a multiengine airplane with engines which rotate clockwise, the critical engine is the A. left engine, because the right engine center of thrust is farther away from the centerline of the fuselage. B. right engine, because the left engine center of thrust is closer to the centerline of the fuselage. C. left engine, because the right engine center of thrust is closer to the centerline of the fuselage.
5.6.6.5.8.A.1The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting A. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM. B. an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM. C. a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
5.6.6.7.9.A.1If a pitot tube is clogged, which instrument would be affected? A. Altimeter. B. Airspeed indicator. C. Vertical speed indicator.
5.6.6.8.5.A.1What is the primary advantage of a constant-speed propeller? A. To obtain and maintain a selected pitch angle of the blades regardless of the flight situation or power setting. B. To obtain a pitch setting that is suitable for each flight situation and power setting. C. To maintain a specific engine speed.
5.6.7.1.2.A.1If both the ram-air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected? A. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. B. Zero indicated airspeed until blockage is removed. C. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made.
6.6.7.4.1.B.1(Refer to figure 24.) Determine the density altitude.Airport elevation5,515 ftOAT 30° CAltimeter setting29.40" Hg A. 9,100 feet. B. 6,000 feet. C. 8,450 feet.
6.6.7.8.2.A.1(Refer to figure 35.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank? A. 30 pounds. B. 50 pounds. C. 300 pounds.
6.6.8.0.2.A.1If the nosewheel of an airplane moves aft during gear retraction, how would this aft movement affect the CG location of that airplane? It would A. cause the CG location to move forward. B. cause the CG location to move aft. C. have no effect on the CG location.
6.6.8.0.5.A.1The center of gravity of an aircraft can be determined by A. dividing total moment by total weight. B. dividing total arm by total moment. C. multiplying total arm by total weight.
7.6.8.6.6.A.1On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.Distance between A and B70 NMForecast wind310° at 15 ktsPressure altitude8,000 ftAmbient temperature-10 °CTrue course270°The required indicated airspeed would be approximately A. 126 knots. B. 137 knots. C. 152 knots.
7.6.8.7.2.A.1After 150 miles are flown from the departure point, the aircraft's position is located 8 miles off course. If 160 miles remain to be flown, what approximate total correction should be made to converge on the destination? A. 6°. B. 9°. C. 12°.
7.6.8.7.4.A.1If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from A. 019° and 12 knots. B. 200° and 13 knots. C. 246° and 13 knots.
7.6.8.7.5.A.1If a true heading of 350° results in a ground track of 335° and a true airspeed of 140 knots results in a groundspeed of 115 knots, the wind would be from A. 015° and 30 knots. B. 035° and 40 knots. C. 290° and 40 knots.
7.6.8.7.6.A.1If a true heading of 230° results in a ground track of 250° and a true airspeed of 160 knots results in a groundspeed of 175 knots, the wind would be from A. 165° and 60 knots. B. 343° and 60 knots. C. 135° and 59 knots.
7.6.8.7.8.A.1When planning a distance flight, true course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the A. angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point. B. angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point. C. values of isogonic lines change from point to point.
7.6.8.8.6.A.1GIVEN:True course258°Variation10° EIndicated airspeed142 ktsAmbient temperature+05 °CPressure altitude6,500 ftForecast wind 350° at 30 ktsUnder these conditions, the magnetic heading and groundspeed would be approximately A. 260° and 155 knots. B. 280° and 155 knots. C. 270° and 157 knots.
7.6.9.1.5.A.1If you are 30 miles from the NDB transmitter and the ADF indicates 3° off course, how many miles off course are you? A. 3. B. 6. C. 1.5.
7.6.9.1.8.A.1The ADF indicates a 5° wingtip bearing change in 2.5 minutes' elapsed time. If the true airspeed is 125 knots, the distance to the station would be A. 62.5 NM. B. 56.5 NM. C. 31.2 NM.
7.6.9.2.6.A.1Which statement is true concerning the operation of DME? A. DME coded identification is transmitted once for each three or four times that the VOR coded identification is transmitted. B. DME operates in the VHF frequency band. C. Distance information received from DME is the actual horizontal distance from the station.
7.6.9.3.0.C.1When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? A. The airspace designation normally will not change. B. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation. C. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
7.6.9.4.2.A.1(Refer to figure 45.) Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over McCampbell Airport (area 1)? A. 717 feet AGL. B. Surface. C. 1,217 feet MSL.
7.6.9.4.6.A.1(Refer to figure 45.) The airspace beginning at the surface overlying NAS Kingsville (area 2) is A. a military operations area (MOA). B. Class D airspace. C. an Alert Area.
7.6.9.5.2.A.1(Refer to figure 46.) What is the height of the Class D airspace over Livermore Airport (area 5)? A. Base of the overlying Class B airspace. B. 2,900 feet MSL. C. 3,000 feet AGL.
7.6.9.5.6.A.1(Refer to figure 46.) The minimum avionics equipment necessary to operate in the airspace above 8,000 feet MSL over San Francisco International Airport (area 6) is A. transponder and encoding altimeter. B. two-way radio communications equipment, transponder, and encoding altimeter. C. two-way radio communications equipment.
7.6.9.6.6.A.1All operations within Class C airspace must be A. in an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability. B. in compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. C. on a flight plan filed prior to arrival or departure.
8.6.9.8.0.A.1Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft. A. Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing. B. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents. C. Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim.
8.6.9.8.7.A.1During a level turn, increasing the airspeed while maintaining a constant load factor would result in A. an increase in centrifugal force. B. a decrease in radius of turn. C. an increase in radius of turn.
8.6.9.9.3.A.1During a power approach to a short-field landing, the correct airspeed may be verified by A. the ability to maintain a constant angle of descent. B. little or no floating during the landing flare. C. the ability to land on a predetermined spot.
8.6.9.9.8.A.1If poor aircraft controllability is experienced during an emergency go-around with full flaps, the cause is most probably due to A. the high-power, low-airspeed situation with the airplane trimmed for a full-flap configuration. B. a reduction in the angle of attack with full flaps to the point where the aircraft control is greatly impaired. C. excessive airspeed with full flaps extended.
8.7.0.1.4.A.1(See figure 49.) At which points will the wing (lateral axis) be in alignment with the pylon during turns around a point? A. 1 and 5. B. 1, 3, 5, and 7. C. 3 and 7.
8.7.0.4.7.A.1What would cause the 45° point to be reached before the maximum pitchup attitude during a lazy eight? A. Beginning with too slow a rate of roll. B. Beginning with too rapid a rate of roll. C. Allowing the airspeed to remain too high causing the rate of turn to increase.
8.7.0.5.0.A.1(Refer to figure 52.) During practice of lazy eights, the most probable cause of the uncoordinated situation at the completion of 90° of turn (indicated by the turn-and-slip indicator shown in "1") is the A. use of too little right rudder pressure. B. use of too much left rudder control pressure. C. use of too much right rudder pressure.
8.7.0.5.1.A.1Which would likely result in a slipping turn? A. Increasing the rate of turn without using rudder. B. Increasing the rate of turn without increasing bank. C. Not holding bottom rudder in a turn.
8.7.0.5.2.A.1Choose the true statement pertaining to a slip or skid in an airplane. A. In a left climbing turn, if insufficient right rudder is applied to compensate for the increased torque effect, a slip will result. B. A skid occurs when the rate of turn is too slow for the amount of bank being used. C. In a right descending turn, if excessive left rudder is applied to compensate for the decreased torque effect, a slip will result.
8.7.1.0.2.A.1Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude? A. Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings. B. Reduce power, correct bank attitude, and raise nose to a level attitude. C. Reduce power, raise nose to a level attitude, and correct bank attitude.
8.7.1.0.3.A.1The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold? A. 4 NM. B. 6 NM. C. 10 NM.
8.7.1.2.3.A.1Which transponder code should the pilot of a civilian aircraft never use? A. 7500. B. 7777. C. 7600.
8.7.1.3.7.A.1During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by A. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. B. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point. C. remaining below the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
8.7.1.5.3.A.1(Refer to figure 55.) On what frequency can a pilot activate the approach lights at Redbird Field when the control tower is not in operation? A. 120.15. B. 122.95. C. 120.3.
8.7.1.5.4.A.1(Refer to figure 55.) Select the correct statement concerning Dallas Love Field. A. The touchdown zone elevation for Rwy 13R is 53 feet. B. The runway gradient for Rwy 18 is less than .3 percent. C. Right traffic is in effect for all runways.
8.7.2.2.7.A.2Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are to A. promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. B. assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. C. complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and "get the job done."
