1.4.0.2.0.A.1How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft? Within the previous 6 calendar months, logged A. six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved. B. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems. C. 6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.
1.4.0.5.0.A.1Where is DME required under IFR? A. In positive control airspace. B. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. C. Above 18,000 feet MSL.
1.4.0.5.6.A.1You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you A. may not take off until the instrument is corrected by either the pilot or a mechanic. B. must return to the parking area and have the instrument corrected by an authorized instrument repairman. C. may take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.
1.4.0.8.5.A.1What standard minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only? A. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively. B. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. C. Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
2.4.1.0.8.A.1Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars? A. Centrifugal. B. Pressure gradient. C. Coriolis.
2.4.1.1.3.A.1If the air temperature is +8 °C at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level? A. 9,350 feet MSL. B. 5,350 feet MSL. C. 3,350 feet MSL.
2.4.1.5.3.A.1What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact? A. You have flown through a cold front. B. You have flown into an area of thunderstorms. C. Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude.
2.4.1.5.5.A.1A jetstream is defined as wind of A. 50 knots or greater. B. 40 knots or greater. C. 30 knots or greater.
2.4.1.8.6.B.1When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued? A. Every 12 hours as required. B. Every 24 hours as required. C. Unscheduled and issued as required.
2.4.1.9.9.A.1A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft at FL 390 to be 300° at 200 knots; temperature -54 °C. How would this data be encoded in the FD? A. 809954. B. 309954. C. 300054.
2.4.2.2.0.A.1Interpret this PIREP.MRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT. A. At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain. B. Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward. C. FL 60,000, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind.
2.4.2.3.2.A.1(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow C on the Radar Summary Chart? A. Area movement toward the northeast, strong to very strong echoes, and echo tops 28,000 feet MSL. B. Average echo bases 2,800 feet MSL, thundershowers, and intense to extreme echo intensity. C. Cell movement toward the northwest at 20 knots, intense echoes, and echo bases 28,000 feet MSL.
2.4.2.5.2.A.1Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as A. 8,000 feet per minute. B. 7,000 feet per minute. C. 6,000 feet per minute.
2.4.2.5.8.A.1(Refer to figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter? A. Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft. B. Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft. C. Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.
3.4.2.7.2.A.1(Refer to figures 30 and 30A.) What is your position relative to GNATS intersection and the instrument departure routing? A. Left of departure course and have not passed GNATS. B. Right of departure course and past GNATS. C. On departure course and past GNATS.
3.4.2.9.4.A.1(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) On which heading should you plan to depart CREEK intersection? A. 040°. B. 010°. C. 350°.
3.4.3.3.9.A.1(Refer to figures 65 and 67.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection? A. It signifies a localizer only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial. B. The localizer has an additional navigation function. C. GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF for the ILS approach procedure to Harry P. Williams Memorial.
3.4.3.5.8.A.1(Refer to figure 74.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. U. B. A. C. T.
4.4.3.7.5.A.1The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace. A. The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace. B. Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination. C. No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
4.4.4.1.2.A.1What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC? A. The VOR and DME components are operative. B. The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative. C. VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service.
4.4.4.1.6.A.1Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower? A. Airport advisories. B. All functions of approach control. C. Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
4.4.4.4.4.A.1What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways? A. Set the altimeter to 29.92 B. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92 C. Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climbout and 29.92 Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.
4.4.4.5.0.A.1When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC? A. Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable. B. Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow. C. When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA.
4.4.4.5.9.A.1What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL? A. Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction. B. Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet. C. After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.
4.4.4.8.4.A.1(Refer to figure 84.) Which altimeter depicts 8,000 feet? A. 2. B. 3. C. 1.
4.4.4.8.8.A.1(Refer to figures 85 and 86.) Which combination of indications confirm that you are approaching WAGGE intersection slightly to the right of the LOC centerline on departure? A. 2 and 3. B. 1 and 3. C. 1 and 4.
4.4.4.9.2.A.1(Refer to figure 85.) Of the following, which is the minimum acceptable rate of climb (feet per minute) to 9,000 feet required for the WASH2 WAGGE departure at a GS of 150 knots? A. 825 feet per minute. B. 1,000 feet per minute. C. 750 feet per minute.
4.4.5.1.0.B.1(Refer to figure 91.) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V343 for a VFR-on-Top flight from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection? A. 14,500 and 16,500 feet. B. 15,000 and 17,000 feet. C. 15,500 and 17,500 feet.
4.4.5.1.7.A.1(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298? A. 11,100 feet. B. 13,000 feet. C. 8,300 feet.
4.4.5.1.9.A.1What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? A. 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. B. 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. C. 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
5.4.5.5.1.A.1When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between A. 10° and 12°. B. 8° and 10°. C. 5° and 6°.
5.4.5.6.9.A.1(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "G'' correspond? A. 5 and 13. B. 7 only. C. 7 and 11.
5.4.6.0.4.B.1(Refer to figure 78.) When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is A. 10,400 feet B. 9,300 feet C. 8,500 feet
5.4.6.3.8.A.1Which is true regarding the use of a instrument departure procedure chart? A. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure. B. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure. C. The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory.
5.4.6.4.1.A.1While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until A. established on a segment of a published route or IAP. B. reaching the FAF. C. advised to begin descent.
5.4.6.5.0.A.1Refer to figure 121.) During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is A. 3,000 feet MSL. B. 2,365 feet MSL. C. 2,500 feet MSL.
5.4.6.5.8.A.1(Refer to figure 125.) If cleared for an S-LOC 17R approach at Lincoln Municipal from over TOUHY, it means the flight should A. begin final approach without making a procedure turn. B. comply with straight-in landing minimums. C. land straight in on runway 17R.
5.4.6.7.5.A.1(Refer to figure 128.) What type entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern depicted on the VOR RWY 36 approach chart for Price/Carbon County Airport? A. Parallel only. B. Teardrop only. C. Direct only.
5.4.7.0.8.A.1Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because A. the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed. B. of the high angle of attack and high gross weight. C. the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
5.4.7.1.9.A.1When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate? A. Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles. B. The landing minimums for the approach to be used. C. 600 1 if the airport has an ILS.
5.4.7.3.5.A.1What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds? A. The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds. B. The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds. C. The pilot must agree to the approach when given by ATC and the controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.
5.4.7.8.7.A.1(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a "slightly low'' (2.8°) indication? A. 11. B. 10. C. 9.
6.4.8.0.8.A.1A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of A. diving into the ground. B. spinning in the opposite direction. C. being in a noseup attitude.
6.4.8.1.0.A.1The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions A. occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight. B. are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience. C. must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
7.4.8.3.8.A.1What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established? A. Attitude indicator. B. Heading indicator. C. Turn coordinator.
7.4.8.6.1.A.2During standard-rate turns, which instrument is considered to be 'primary' for bank? A. Attitude indicator. B. Heading indicator. C. Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator.
7.4.9.0.0.A.1Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a A. 270° turn. B. 180° turn. C. 360° turn.
7.4.9.0.5.A.1If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°? A. 1 minute 30 seconds. B. 1 minute 20 seconds. C. 1 minute.
7.4.9.3.0.A.1If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect? A. The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent. B. The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent. C. The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.
7.4.9.3.8.A.1(Refer to figure 147.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? A. Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading. B. Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original attitude and heading. C. Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.
